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CMAT 2022

Previous Year Questions with Detailed Solutions

100 Questions CMAT Free Access

Practice CMAT 2022 previous year questions with step-by-step solutions from the CMAT exam. Every question includes the correct answer and a full worked explanation — no need to leave the page.

Q1

CMAT 2022

In a batch of 50 students has ratio of Boys to Girls as 4:6. Average marks of Girls are 60 and Average marks of the batch is 62. Average Marks of Boys will be:

A

61

B

63

C

62

D

65

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Correct Answer

65

Let the number of boys be 4x and number of girls be 6x
Given, 4x+6x = 50
x = 5
Number of boys = 20 and number of girls = 30
Average marks of girls = 60
Total marks scored by girls = 60 30 = 1800
Average marks score by batch = 62
Total marks scored by batch = 62 50 = 3100
Marks scored by boys = 3100 - 1800 = 1300
Average marks of boys = 1300/20 = 65
Answer is option D.

Q2

CMAT 2022

Four sheep farmers rented a pasture, Anil grazed his 24 sheep for 3 months, Bimal 10 sheep for 5 months, Champak 35 sheep for 4 months and Damodar 21 sheep for 3 months,. If Anil’s share of rent is Rs. 720, find the total rent of the pasture :

A

Rs.3,200

B

Rs.3,250

C

Rs.2,300

D

Rs.4,000

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Correct Answer

Rs.3,250

Q3

CMAT 2022

A copper wire having length of 243m and diameter 4 mm was melted to form a sphere. Find the diameter of the sphere :

A

17 m

B

18 cm

C

15 cm

D

20 cm

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Correct Answer

18 cm

Volume of copper wire melted will be equal to volume of sphere.
Volume of copper wire = Area length = π(½)2 x 24300 cm3
Let the radius of sphere be r
r3= 729
r = 9 cm
Diameter of sphere = 2(9) = 18 cm
Answer is option B.

Q4

CMAT 2022

If the cost price is 80% of the selling price, then what is the profit in percentage?

A

20%

B

25%

C

16%

D

22.5%

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Correct Answer

25%

Given, cost price is 80% of selling price
C.P = 0.8 S.P
Profit = (S.P. - C.P.)/C.P. x 100
= (S.P. - 0.8S.P.) 0.8 S.P. x 100
= 0.2 / 0.8 x 100
= 25%
Answer is option B

Q5

CMAT 2022

In a bag there are 15 red balls and 10 green balls. Three balls are selected at random. The probability of selecting 2 red balls and 1 green ball is :

A

21/46

B

25/117

C

3/25

D

1/50

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Correct Answer

21/46

Number of ways of selecting 2 red balls and 1 green ball =15C2 . 10C1
Number of ways of selecting 3 balls =25C3
Probability of selecting 2 red balls and 1 green ball = 15C2 . 10C/ 25C3 = 21/46
Answer is option A.

Q6

CMAT 2022

With an average speed of 40 km/hr, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an average speed of 30 km/hr, it is late

by 36 minutes. The total distance travelled by train is :

A

72 km

 

B

78 km

 

C

60 km

 

D

40 km

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Correct Answer

72 km

 

Let us consider with average speed of 40 km/hr, train reached its destination in time t hrs

with average speed of 30 km/hr, it takes t + 36/60 hrs

Distance will be same in both the cases

40t = 30t + 18

10t = 18

t = 18/10

Distance = 40t = 40  x 18/10 = 72 km

Answer is option A.

Q7

CMAT 2022

A man borrows Rs 4000 at 15% compound interest. At the end of each year he pays back Rs 1500. How much amount is required to pay at the end of third year to clear all his dues :

A

Rs.775.75

B

Rs.973.85

C

Rs.1500

D

Rs.874.75

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Correct Answer

Rs.874.75

Time value of money Rs 4,000 at the end of 3 years = Rs 6083.5
Value of first installment at the end of 3 years =  Rs 1983.75
Value of second installment at the end of 3 years = Rs 1725
Value of third installment = 1500
Let us assume he has to pay Rs. x to clear all his dues
1983.75 + 1725 + 1500 + x = 6083.5

x = Rs 874.75
Answer is option D.

Q8

CMAT 2022

The following pie chart embodies the details about the per cent production by seven different companies A-G with the total production for all companies at 1500 units.

(A) Companies A & G are producing more than 500 units
(B) Companies B & F are producing less than 250 units
(C) Companies C & E account for 705 units
(D) Companies D & G are producing less than 200 units
(E) Companies E, F & G account for 545 units
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

Only (A) & (B) are true

B

Only (B) & (C) are true

C

Only (D) & (E) are true

D

Only (A) & (E) are true

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Correct Answer

Only (B) & (C) are true

A) A and G production = 240 + 180 = 420 (not greater than 500)
B) B and F production = 165 + 75 = 240 ( is less than 250)
C) C and E production = 315 + 390 = 705
D) D and G production = 135 +180 = 315 ( not less than 200)
E) E, F and G production = 390 + 75 + 180 = 645 ( not equal to 545)
Only (B) and (C) are true.
Answer is option B.

Q9

CMAT 2022

In a local election between two candidates, one candidate got 55% of the total valid votes and was declared as winner. 15% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes polled were 15200, what were the valid votes of the loser :

A

6840

B

5800

C

5814

D

6216

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Correct Answer

5814

Total number of votes = 15200
15% of total votes are invalid, this implies 85% are valid.
55% of valid votes are secured by winner, this implies 45% of valid votes are secured by loser
Voted secured by loser = = 5814
Answer is option C.

Q10

CMAT 2022

If 1/x is a positive fraction and 1/y is a negative fraction then which of the following statements are true
(A) 1/x + 1/y is positive
(B) 1/x - 1/y is positive
(C) x - y / xy is negative
(D) 1 / xy is positive
(E) 1/x2 - 1/y2 is positive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

Only (A) & (B) are true

B

Only (B) & (C) are true

C

Only (D) & (E) are true

D

Only (A) & (E) are true

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Correct Answer

Only (B) & (C) are true

Only (B) and (C) are true.
Answer is option B

Q11

CMAT 2022

The average age of three friends is 20 years and their ages are in the proportion 2:3:5, the age of the oldest friend is :

A

12 years

B

18 years

C

30 years

D

40 years

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Correct Answer

30 years

Given average age of three friends is 20 years
Sum of their ages = = 60 years
Given, their ages are in ratio 2:3:5. Let their ages be 2x, 3x and 5x
2x + 3x + 5x = 60
10x = 60
x = 6
Their ages are 12 years, 18 years and 30 years
Age of oldest friend = 30 years
Answer is option C.

Q12

CMAT 2022

Match List I with List II. The following table embodies the details about the enrollment of students in five different activities namely Swimming, Singing, Drawing, Dancing and Handicraft in a School during the session 2020-21. A total number of 3000 students including 1750 girls have been enrolled in various activities in the school. Based on the data in the table, match the following :
Activity-wise Enrollment of Students

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

 

A

(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

B

(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

C

(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

D

(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

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Correct Answer

(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Total number of students is given and percentage of students enrolled in different activity is given. Calculating number of students participating in each activity, we get

A) Boys enrolled in singing and handicraft = 140 + 365 = 505 (III)
B) Girls enrolled in swimming and drawing = 245 + 280 = 525 (II)
C) Girls enrolled in singing and drawing = 490 + 280 = 770 (IV)
D) Girls enrolled in dancing and handicraft = 350 + 385 = 735 (I)
Therefore, answer is option D.

Q13

CMAT 2022

If a 30 meter ladder is placed against a wall such that it just reaches the top of the wall, if the horizontal distance between the wall and the base of the ladder is 1/3rd of the length of ladder, then the height of wall is :

A

25 meter


B

20 √2 meter

C

20  √3 meter

D

20 meter

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Correct Answer

20 √2 meter

Q14

CMAT 2022

Directions for Q.14 to Q.16:

Consider the following table that shows the percentage (%) distribution of workforce of India and ratio of male to female workforce of India in different employment sectors during a given year. Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 60 lakhs. Based on the data contained in the table, answer the question :
Sector-wise Distribution of Workforce of India

The number of male workforce in SA and MA sectors put together is approximately what percent of the total number of workforce in PT sector?

A

82%

B

87%

C

89%

D

85%

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Correct Answer

87%

Q15

CMAT 2022

Directions for Q.14 to Q.16:

Consider the following table that shows the percentage (%) distribution of workforce of India and ratio of male to female workforce of India in different employment sectors during a given year. Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 60 lakhs. Based on the data contained in the table, answer the question :
Sector-wise Distribution of Workforce of India

The number of female workforce in SE and PR sectors put together is what percent of the number of male workforce in CM sector?

A

330%

B

318%

C

320%

D

80%

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Correct Answer

330%

Total workforce = 60 lakhs


Female workforce in SE and PR = 360 + 630 = 990
Male workforce in CM = 300
% required = 330%
Answer is option A.

Q16

CMAT 2022

Directions for Q.14 to Q.16:

Consider the following table that shows the percentage (%) distribution of workforce of India and ratio of male to female workforce of India in different employment sectors during a given year. Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 60 lakhs. Based on the data contained in the table, answer the question :
Sector-wise Distribution of Workforce of India

The difference in the number of female workforce in SA and MA sectors put together and the number of female workforce in PT sector is :

A

5.1 lakhs

B

7.5 lakhs

C

5.6 lakhs

D

13.2 lakhs

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Correct Answer

5.6 lakhs

Total workforce = 60 lakhs 

Female workforce in SA and MA = 2.7 + 7.2 = 9.9 lakhs
Female workforce in PT = 4.275 lakhs
Difference = 9.9 - 4.275 = 5.625 5.6 lakhs
Answer is option C.

Q17

CMAT 2022

one pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If the two pipes together can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe will take how much time to fill the tank alone?

A

81 minutes

B

108 minutes

C

192 minutes

D

144 minutes

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Correct Answer

144 minutes

Let slower pipe fill the tank at the rate x units/ minute.
Faster pipe will fill tank at the rate of 3x units/ minute
Number of units filled by both the pipes in a minute = 4x
Total time taken to fill tank = 36 minutes
capacity of tank = 36 4x = 144x
Time taken by slower pipe to fill the tank =  144 minutes
Answer is option D.

Q18

CMAT 2022

A bag contains 6 red balls, 11 yellow balls and 5 pink balls. If two balls are drawn at a random from the bag, one after another. What is the probability that the first ball drawn was red and the second ball drawn was yellow in colour?

A

3/14

B

5/7

C

1/7

D

1/14

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Correct Answer

1/7

There are 6 red balls, 11 yellow balls and 5 pink balls
Total number of balls = 6 + 11 + 5 = 22
Probability of selecting red ball = 6/22
After selecting one ball, there are 21 balls left
Probability of selecting yellow ball = 11/21
Therefore, probability = 6/22 x 11/21 = 1/7
Answer is option C.

Q19

CMAT 2022

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The set of numbers (7,8,9,a,b,10,8,7) has an arithmetic mean of 9 and mode(most frequently occurring number) as 8, Then a x b = 120.
Statement II : Let a and b be two positive integers such that a + b + a x b = 84, then a + b =20.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

A

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

D

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Correct Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Statement I:
Given arithmetic mean of (7,8,9,a,b,10,8,7) is 9 and mode is 8
7+8+9+a+b+10+8+7 =
49+a+b = 72
a+b = 23
It is mentioned that mode is 8, 8 occurred twice and 7 also occurred twice. Therefore, a or b should be 8
If a = 8, b = 15
If b = 8, a = 15
ab = 120
Statement I is true
Statement II:
a + b + ab = 84
1 + a + b + ab = 85
(1+a)(1+b) = 85
85 = 1 85 or 5 17
It cannot be 1 85, as it is mentioned both a and b are positive integers
If 1+a = 5, 1+b = 17
a =4 and b = 16
If 1+a = 17, 1+b = 5
a = 16 and b = 4
In both cases, a+b = 20
Statement II is true
Answer is option A.

Q20

CMAT 2022

If (x + y) = 3, xy = 2, then what is the value of x3 + y3:

A

6

B

7

C

8

D

9

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Correct Answer

9

Q21

CMAT 2022

A statement is followed by assumption I and II. An assumption is supposed to be taken for granted. Consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement : The Government has decided to relocate all the brick kilns away from the city.
Assumption I : Pollution in the city is being caused only because of the brick Kilns in the city
Assumption II : Workers shall be able to travel daily to the new site of Brick Kilns

A

Only assumption I is implicit

B

Only assumption II is implicit

C

Either assumption I or assumption II is implicit

D

Neither of the assumption is implicit

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Correct Answer

Only assumption II is implicit

The assumption I is not implicit and the assumption is implicit because without assuming this factor relocation will not make sense. Therefore, answer is option B.

Q22

CMAT 2022

Each of the five balls, such as Red, Blue, Yellow, Black and Green is of a different weight. It is known that:
(i) Black ball is heavier than the Red and Blue balls.
(ii) Yellow ball is lighter than the Red ball.
(iii) Blue ball is heavier than the Red and Green balls.
Which ball could be the lightest one?

A

Only Green

B

Either Yellow or Green

C

Only Yellow

D

Either Yellow or Red

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Correct Answer

Either Yellow or Green

From statements (i) and (ii) we can infer that the black ball is heavier than the red, blue and yellow balls since the yellow ball is lighter than the red ball and the black ball is heavier than the red ball.
Similarly from statements (i) and (ii), we can conclude that the black ball is heavier than the green ball. Therefore, the black ball is the heaviest.
Now from statements (ii) and (iii), we can infer that the blue ball is the second heaviest.
It is given that the yellow ball is lighter than the red ball so the red ball cannot be the lightest ball.
Therefore the lightest ball is either the green ball or the yellow ball.

Q23

CMAT 2022

In a college 200 students are randomly chosen. 140 like tea and 120 like Coffee and 70 like both tea and coffee. How many like neither tea nor coffee?

A

20

B

30

C

50

D

10

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Correct Answer

10

Tea - A, Coffee - B
n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) - n (A ∩ B)
n(A U B) = 140 + 120 - 70 = 190
Number of students who like tea or coffee = 190
Therefore, number of students who like neither tea nor coffee = 200 - 190 = 10
Answer is option D.

Q24

CMAT 2022

Complete the series; DIT, GMQ, KQM, PUH,____

A

VYB

B

UYB

C

VXC

D

TUJ

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Correct Answer

VYB

Considering the first letters of each term.
There are 2 alphabets in between D and G (E and F).
There are 3 alphabets between G and K (H, I and J).
There are 4 alphabets between K and P (L, M, N, and O)
Hence, there will be 5 alphabets between P and the required letter. Thus, the required letter will be V (Q, R, S, T and U) Considering the second letter of each term.
There are three alphabets between each of the second terms, I and M (J, K, L), M and Q (N, O, P), and Q and U (R, S, T). Hence, there will be three terms between the required term and U, i.e., V, W, X. Thus, the required second term is Y. Hence, the answer is option A.

Q25

CMAT 2022

Ram travelled towards East from his office. After travelling 10 Km, he took a right turn and covered 2 km. Then he took a 45 Degree turn in clockwise direction and travels 3 km. In which direction is he travelling now?

A

North East

B

North

C

South West

D

South East

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Correct Answer

South West

Ram travelled 10 km east and then he turned right which means he is travelling in the south direction now. He travels in the south direction for 2 km. Now he took a 45-degree turn in the clockwise direction which means he is now travelling in the south-west direction

Q26

CMAT 2022

At 3’O Clock, if Hour hand points towards West, in which
direction will the minute hand points at 7.45 p.m.

A

West

B

East

C

South

D

South East

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Correct Answer

East

The minute hand at 7:45 will point in an opposite direction to the hour hand at 3'O clock. Therefore, as the hour hand at 3'O clock points in the east direction so the minute hand at 7:45 will point in the east direction.

Q27

CMAT 2022

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Money can resolve most of our problems.
Reason (R) : We are living in a hierarchical society.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

A

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

C

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

D

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

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Correct Answer

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

In the given question, both assertion and reason are correct. Given two statements are not related to each other in any way. Therefore, the reason is not the explanation of assertion.
Answer is option B.

Q28

CMAT 2022

Complete the series; FAQ, AQF, ___, FAQ, AQF

A

QAF

B

QFA

C

FQA

D

AFQ

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Correct Answer

QFA

From the 2nd term onwards,
1st letter of every term is 2nd letter of the previous term
2nd letter of every term is 3rd letter of the previous term
3rd letter of every term is 1st letter of the previous term
2nd term is AQF so as per the above logic third term will be QFA.

Q29

CMAT 2022

B, C, D, E, G, H are six persons sitting in a row, not necessarily in the same order. Two persons are sitting between C and G. C is placed to the immediate left of B. D is the first one in the row. C and H are not sitting together. Which one/ones of the following represent/s the correct arrangement of their sitting?
(A) D, H, G, E, B, C
(B) D, C, B, H, G, E
(C) D, G, H, E, C, B
(D) D, G, E, H, C, B

A

Arrangement (A) & (B) are correct.

B

Arrangement (B) & (C) are correct.

C

Arrangement (C) & (D) are correct.

D

Arrangement (D) & (A) are correct.

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Correct Answer

Arrangement (B) & (C) are correct.

C is to the immediate left of B but in option (A) B is to the immediate left of C so option (A) is eliminated.
C and H are not sitting together but in option (D) C and H are sitting together so option (D) is also eleiminated.

Q30

CMAT 2022

144 is related to 77 in the same way as 168 is related to_____.

A

87

B

88

C

65

D

89

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Correct Answer

89

Q31

CMAT 2022

A device classifies numbers according to the following criteria. The number must have
(A) The number has five digits
(B) First and last digits are perfect squares.
(C) The middle digit is an odd number and it is an addition of first and last digits.
(D) Second and fourth digits are the difference between first and third digits, third and fifth digits.
Which of the following number could be correct according to the conditions given above?

A

14514

B

94514

C

44949

D

93524

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Correct Answer

14514

5 digit number - _ , _ , _ , _ , _
It is given that first and last digit is a perfect square, it can be 0, 1, 4, 9
It is mentioned that middle digit is sum of first and last digits; therefore, 9 cannot be one of the digits.
1) 1 , _ , 1 , _ , 0
2) 1 , _ , 5 , _ , 4
3) 4 , _ , 5 , _ , 1
It is mentioned that the second and fourth digits are the difference between first and third digits, third and fifth digits. Therefore,
1) 1 , 0 , 1 , 1 , 0
2) 1 , 4 , 5 , 1 , 4
3) 4 , 1 , 5 , 4 , 1
Answer is option A.

Q32

CMAT 2022

Select the pair which has following type of relationship;
Circle: Circumference

A

Square : Area

B

Cylinder : Volume

C

Rectangle : Perimeter

D

Prism : Sides

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Correct Answer

Rectangle : Perimeter

Circumference is perimeter of the circle. Therefore, rectangle:perimeter is the correct option.
Answer is option C.

Q33

CMAT 2022

Find the odd one among the following:

A

Cabbage

B

Potato

C

Onion

D

Lettuce

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Correct Answer

Potato

Since the potato grows under the ground while the other three grow above the ground so the potato is the odd one out.

Q34

CMAT 2022

Six students P,Q,R,S,T and U are sitting around a Hexagonal table each at one corner and facing the center of hexagon. P is second to the left of U, Q is neighbor of R and S. T is second to the left of S. Who is on the right of R?

A

Q

B

P

C

S

D

U

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Correct Answer

P

It is given that,
Q is neighbour of R and S, and T is to the second left of S. Therefore, the only possible arrangement is

Q35

CMAT 2022

Complete the sequence: 24, __, 48, 63

A

35

B

14

C

37

D

39

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Correct Answer

35

All the terms are of the form x2 − 1
52 − 1 = 24 72 − 1 = 48 82 − 1 = 63 therefore 62 − 1 = 35 is the correct answer.

Q36

CMAT 2022

A is the sister of B’s father-in-law. A and C are siblings. D is the husband of B. How is D related to A?

A

Sister-in-law

B

Brother

C

Aunt

D

Mother-in-law

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Correct Answer

Aunt

It is given that A is the sister of B's father-in-law and D is B's husband so from this we can conclude that A is the sister of D's father.
Therefore, A is D's aunt.

Q37

CMAT 2022

In the following question, an assertion is followed by two reasons R1 and R2. Read the assertion and the reasons and find which
of the reasons is possible.
Assertion : The 10th class result is very poor this year.
R1 : Number of students in 10th class have increased considerably
R2 : The students of 10th class belong to different sections of society.

A

Only R1 is possible reason

B

Only R2 is possible reason

C

Neither R1 nor R2 are the reasons

D

If both R1 and R2 are the possible reasons

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Correct Answer

Neither R1 nor R2 are the reasons

None of the reasons is explaining why the 10th class result is very poor. So option C is the answer.

Q38

CMAT 2022

Suraj walked 6 m facing towards the west, then he took a left turn and walked a distance of 8 m. He then took a right turn and walked a distance of 6 m. He then walked for 10 m in the north-east direction. Approximately, how far is he from the starting point?

A

8 m

B

10 m

C

6 m

D

2 m

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Correct Answer

6 m

Q39

CMAT 2022

In a certain code language, ‘^’ means ‘is less than’, ‘#’ means ‘is greater than’ and ‘*’ means ‘is equal to’ and given that a^b, c*d, and c#b, then which of the following is true?

A

d^a

B

b#d

C

a*c

D

a^b^c

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Correct Answer

a^b^c

a^b means a is less than b.
c*d means c is equal to d.
c#b means c is greater than b.
So from the above statements, we can conclude that c=d > b > a.

Q40

CMAT 2022

A,B,C,D,E and F are six members of a family. A is mother of B, who is the husband of D. F is the brother of one of the parents of C. D is the daughter in law of E and has no siblings. C is son of D. How is C related to A?

A

Son

B

Grandson

C

Brother

D

Brother in law

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Correct Answer

Grandson

A is the mother of B and B is the husband of D so A is the mother-in-law of D.
D is the daughter-in-law of E which means that E is the husband of A and father of B.
C is the son of D, therefore C is the grandson of A and E.

Q41

CMAT 2022

Choose the option which is opposite in meaning to the following word: Intrepid

A

Amiable

B

Fiendish

C

Tranquil

D

Cowardly

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Correct Answer

Cowardly

intrepid - fearless
Cowardly means lack of courage. Therefore, option D is most appropriate one.

Q42

CMAT 2022

Please fill the blanks with the help of correct word from pairs given below and complete the sentence:
(elicit / illicit; council / counsel; hoard / horde; dependents / defendants)
(a) He was charged with _______ sale of narcotics.
(b) The Chief Minister was given a ________ to keep off the epidemic.
(c) A _________ of terrorists have attacked the army base.
(d) The _________ of the university employees are granted full free-fellowship.

A

(a) Elicit; (b) Council; (c) Hoard; (d) Dependents

B

(a) Illicit; (b) Council; (c) Horde; (d) Defendants

C

(a) Elicit; (b) Counsel; (c) Hoard; (d) Defendants

D

(a) Illicit; (b) Counsel; (c) Horde; (d) Dependents

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Correct Answer

(a) Illicit; (b) Counsel; (c) Horde; (d) Dependents

a. "elicit" means "to evoke a reaction" while "illicit" means "illegal/forbidden by law". For the given sentence, "illicit" is the right choice.
b. "council" means "a group of people selected for a certain administrative job", whereas a "counsel" means "to give advice". Concerning the given sentence, "counsel" is the correct choice.
c. "hoard" means "to store", and "horde" means "a large group of people". Thus, "A horde of terrorists" will be the correct phrasing.
d. "The dependents of the university employees" is the right choice for the given sentence.
Hence, the answer is option D.

Q43

CMAT 2022

Pick the appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the following sentence:
“The lease of our premises has run out.”

A

Enfeebled

B

Expired

C

Increased

D

Prolonged

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Correct Answer

Expired

A. "Enfeebled" means to become weak.
B. "Expired" means to end.
C. "Increased" means to become greater in size/value.
D. "Prolonged" means to be increased.
In the given sentence, the phrase "run out" means to come to an end. Out of the options, B is the correct answer.

Q44

CMAT 2022

The word “veteran” means:

A

A person who has fought elections

B

A person who treats animals

C

A person who has long experience

D

A person who lives on vegetables

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Correct Answer

A person who has long experience

veteran - a person who has lot of experience in a particular activity or job.
Therefore, answer is option C.

Q45

CMAT 2022

Pick the appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the following sentence:
“In market economy capital gets lion’s share in production.”

A

adequate part

B

lesser part

C

larger part

D

None of these

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Correct Answer

larger part

The phrase "the lion's share" means "a bigger portion". Out of the options, C gives the correct answer.

Q46

CMAT 2022

Pick the correct sentence:

A

He made a fool of certainly himself.

B

Certainly he made a fool of himself.

C

Certainly a fool he made of himself.

D

He made a certainly fool of himself.

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Correct Answer

Certainly he made a fool of himself.

The grammatically correct sentence among the options is B: " Certainly he made a fool of himself.
"Certainly" is used to emphasize something.

Q47

CMAT 2022

Pick the correct option:
(I) It is nothing else than pride.
(II) It is nothing else but pride.

A

(I) is correct but (II) is incorrect

B

(I) is incorrect but (II) is correct

C

Both (I) & (II) are correct

D

Both (I) & (II) are incorrect

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Correct Answer

(I) is incorrect but (II) is correct

Out of the two given sentences, (ii) is the correct one because "else" is used with "but".
Hence, the answer is option B.

Q48

CMAT 2022

Pick the synonym of “confess”:

A

Agree

B

Admit

C

Understand

D

Decide

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Correct Answer

Admit

confess - admit, acknowledge
Answer is option B.

Q49

CMAT 2022

Pick the appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the following sentence: “You can be happy only when following the golden mean.”

A

opulent way of life

B

middle path

C

golden path

D

meanness

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Correct Answer

middle path

The phrase "to follow the golden mean" means to do things in moderation and avoid the extremes. In other words, it means to follow a middle path. Hence, the answer is option B.

Q50

CMAT 2022

Directions for Q.50 to Q.53: Read the following passage and answer the question that follow:
Urbanization - the demographic shift from country to city - began with industrialization, and it has not let up. In 1900, fewer than 15 percent of the world’s population lived in cities. Fifty years later, that number had doubled to 30 percent of the world’s population of 750 million. By 2000, 2.9 billion people, or 47 percent of the world’s population, were living in urban areas, with the greatest growth occurring in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. In 2007, for the first time in history, the urban population exceeded 50 percent, and by 2050, according to World Health Organization (WHO), seven out of ten people will call urban areas home….
Contrary to common belief, fewer than 10 percent of urban dwellers are residents of megacities with populations of over ten million. A megacity consists of the city proper and its adjoining suburban centers. An example is the New York-Newark aggregation, which in 1950 was the world’s only megacity; by 2011, it was the sixth largest of 21 megacities. The population of Greater Tokyo, the world’s largest urban area and home to 36.7 million residents, is forecast to exceed 37 million by 2020.Megaciites Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder. About half of the world’s urban dwellers live in cities of under half a million people, and these cities continue to outpace megacities in growth.
While the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy, they are plagued with enormous problems. As engines of growth, cities have also become engines of pollution, traffic congestion, waste production, and environmental destruction….
In the 1960s, the concept of urban ecology emerged from the growing awareness of cities’ impact on the environment. In 1975, the nonprofit organization Urban Ecology was founded in Berkeley, California, with the purpose of rebuilding cities in balance with nature. The 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro established Agenda 21, a plan for the sustainable development of cities, and in 2002, 1,200 representatives (including 200 slum dwellers) from 80 countries participated in the first World Urban Forum, making urban ecology and sustainable eco-cities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.

 

Match each of the following meanings with the corresponding underlined words/phrases in the numbered items below:
(i) Reaching a higher position
(ii) Seriously suffering from
(iii) The absolute best
(iv) Something not very practical


A. “Megacities Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder.”
B. “... the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy....”
C. “... they are plagued with enormous problems.”
D. “... making urban ecology and sustainable ecocities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.”

A

A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv)

B

A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)

C

A-(i); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(iv)

D

A-(iii); B-(ii); C-(iv); D-(i)

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Correct Answer

A-(i); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(iv)

(i) Reaching a higher position: this means to get ahead or move up in standing. Thus, it corresponds to "moving up the ladder" in A.
(ii) Seriously suffering from: This is the definition of the word 'plagued' mentioned in C.
(iv) Something not very practical: "just a nice idea" mentioned in D refers to something that is good but not practical.
Hence, the answer is option C.

Q51

CMAT 2022

Directions for Q.50 to Q.53: Read the following passage and answer the question that follow:
Urbanization - the demographic shift from country to city - began with industrialization, and it has not let up. In 1900, fewer than 15 percent of the world’s population lived in cities. Fifty years later, that number had doubled to 30 percent of the world’s population of 750 million. By 2000, 2.9 billion people, or 47 percent of the world’s population, were living in urban areas, with the greatest growth occurring in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. In 2007, for the first time in history, the urban population exceeded 50 percent, and by 2050, according to World Health Organization (WHO), seven out of ten people will call urban areas home….
Contrary to common belief, fewer than 10 percent of urban dwellers are residents of megacities with populations of over ten million. A megacity consists of the city proper and its adjoining suburban centers. An example is the New York-Newark aggregation, which in 1950 was the world’s only megacity; by 2011, it was the sixth largest of 21 megacities. The population of Greater Tokyo, the world’s largest urban area and home to 36.7 million residents, is forecast to exceed 37 million by 2020.Megaciites Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder. About half of the world’s urban dwellers live in cities of under half a million people, and these cities continue to outpace megacities in growth.
While the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy, they are plagued with enormous problems. As engines of growth, cities have also become engines of pollution, traffic congestion, waste production, and environmental destruction….
In the 1960s, the concept of urban ecology emerged from the growing awareness of cities’ impact on the environment. In 1975, the nonprofit organization Urban Ecology was founded in Berkeley, California, with the purpose of rebuilding cities in balance with nature. The 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro established Agenda 21, a plan for the sustainable development of cities, and in 2002, 1,200 representatives (including 200 slum dwellers) from 80 countries participated in the first World Urban Forum, making urban ecology and sustainable eco-cities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.

 

Megacities are classified according to __________.

A

population

B

territorial area

C

their ecological footprint

D

their GDP

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Correct Answer

population

In the second paragraph, the author mentions, "Contrary to common belief, fewer than 10 percent of urban dwellers are residents of megacities with populations of over ten million." After this, he/she goes on to list some of the megacities and their populations.
Hence, we can infer that megacities are classified on the basis of their population.

Q52

CMAT 2022

Directions for Q.50 to Q.53: Read the following passage and answer the question that follow:
Urbanization - the demographic shift from country to city - began with industrialization, and it has not let up. In 1900, fewer than 15 percent of the world’s population lived in cities. Fifty years later, that number had doubled to 30 percent of the world’s population of 750 million. By 2000, 2.9 billion people, or 47 percent of the world’s population, were living in urban areas, with the greatest growth occurring in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. In 2007, for the first time in history, the urban population exceeded 50 percent, and by 2050, according to World Health Organization (WHO), seven out of ten people will call urban areas home….
Contrary to common belief, fewer than 10 percent of urban dwellers are residents of megacities with populations of over ten million. A megacity consists of the city proper and its adjoining suburban centers. An example is the New York-Newark aggregation, which in 1950 was the world’s only megacity; by 2011, it was the sixth largest of 21 megacities. The population of Greater Tokyo, the world’s largest urban area and home to 36.7 million residents, is forecast to exceed 37 million by 2020.Megaciites Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder. About half of the world’s urban dwellers live in cities of under half a million people, and these cities continue to outpace megacities in growth.
While the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy, they are plagued with enormous problems. As engines of growth, cities have also become engines of pollution, traffic congestion, waste production, and environmental destruction….
In the 1960s, the concept of urban ecology emerged from the growing awareness of cities’ impact on the environment. In 1975, the nonprofit organization Urban Ecology was founded in Berkeley, California, with the purpose of rebuilding cities in balance with nature. The 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro established Agenda 21, a plan for the sustainable development of cities, and in 2002, 1,200 representatives (including 200 slum dwellers) from 80 countries participated in the first World Urban Forum, making urban ecology and sustainable eco-cities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.

 

Indicate which of the two statements in the following pairs contains a main idea (M) and which contains a supporting details (SD)?
(I) Tokyo is the world’s largest megacity.
(II) Megacities are growing, but not as rapidly as smaller cities.

A

I - M & II - SD

B

I - SD & II - M

C

I & II both M

D

I & II both SD

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Correct Answer

I - SD & II - M

In the passage, the author talks about megacities, growth in smaller cities, pollution and urban ecology. He does not focus on any one city and hence, statement (2) will be the main idea of the passage.
Statement (1) just talks about Tokyo, which is just one of the examples mentioned by the author. Thus, it will be part of the side details.
Hence, option B is the answer.

Q53

CMAT 2022

Directions for Q.50 to Q.53: Read the following passage and answer the question that follow:
Urbanization - the demographic shift from country to city - began with industrialization, and it has not let up. In 1900, fewer than 15 percent of the world’s population lived in cities. Fifty years later, that number had doubled to 30 percent of the world’s population of 750 million. By 2000, 2.9 billion people, or 47 percent of the world’s population, were living in urban areas, with the greatest growth occurring in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. In 2007, for the first time in history, the urban population exceeded 50 percent, and by 2050, according to World Health Organization (WHO), seven out of ten people will call urban areas home….
Contrary to common belief, fewer than 10 percent of urban dwellers are residents of megacities with populations of over ten million. A megacity consists of the city proper and its adjoining suburban centers. An example is the New York-Newark aggregation, which in 1950 was the world’s only megacity; by 2011, it was the sixth largest of 21 megacities. The population of Greater Tokyo, the world’s largest urban area and home to 36.7 million residents, is forecast to exceed 37 million by 2020.Megaciites Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder. About half of the world’s urban dwellers live in cities of under half a million people, and these cities continue to outpace megacities in growth.
While the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy, they are plagued with enormous problems. As engines of growth, cities have also become engines of pollution, traffic congestion, waste production, and environmental destruction….
In the 1960s, the concept of urban ecology emerged from the growing awareness of cities’ impact on the environment. In 1975, the nonprofit organization Urban Ecology was founded in Berkeley, California, with the purpose of rebuilding cities in balance with nature. The 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro established Agenda 21, a plan for the sustainable development of cities, and in 2002, 1,200 representatives (including 200 slum dwellers) from 80 countries participated in the first World Urban Forum, making urban ecology and sustainable eco-cities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.

 

What does the phrasal verb “let up” means in the first sentence:

A

to come to an end

B

to be less successful

C

not to be working

D

to be less strong

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Correct Answer

to be less strong

"Urbanization - the demographic shift from country to city - began with industrialization, and it has not let up."
The above line means that the urbanization process began with industrialization and hasn't lost its intensity yet. Thus, the phrase "let up" means to lose intensity or "become less strong".
Hence, option D is the answer.

Q54

CMAT 2022

Select the pair which has the same relationship as the pair below:
Whale: Pod

A

Wolf: Pack

B

Plant: Sprout

C

Hand: Fingers

D

Car: Garage

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Correct Answer

Wolf: Pack

A group of whales is known as a pod. Hence, the second term of the relationship gives the name of the group of the first term.
A group of wolves is called a pack. Hence, the answer is option A.

Q55

CMAT 2022

Identify the correct direct speech form of the following sentence:
My teacher told me that I am not working hard.

A

My teacher told to me, “You are not working hard.”

B

My teacher said, “You are not working hard.”

C

My teacher said to him, “I am not working hard.”

D

My teacher said to me, “You are not working hard.”

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Correct Answer

My teacher said to me, “You are not working hard.”

Option A is incorrect as it cannot be told to me. It should be either told me to said to me.
Options B and C doesn't give the same meaning as the given sentence. In option B, it doesn't refer you to anyone in particular. Therefore, the meaning doesn't remain the same.
Option D is the correct direct speech form.
Answer is option D.

Q56

CMAT 2022

Choose the correct alternative to replace the italicized phrase in the following sentence. In case no improvement is needed, option '4' is the answer. I cannot force her to marrying.

A

to marry

B

in marrying

C

for marry

D

No improvement needed

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Correct Answer

to marry

In the given sentence, the object is of the form "to + infinitive". The infinitive is always the first form of a verb. Hence, correct alternative is "to marry".

Q57

CMAT 2022

Find the correctly spelt word.

A

Klaptomania

B

Klepptomania

C

Kleptemania

D

Kleptomania

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Correct Answer

Kleptomania

The correct word is "Kleptomania" which means "a recurrent urge to steal". Hence, the answer is option D.

Q58

CMAT 2022

Choose the correct verb form to fill in the blanks:
That there would be thunderstorm today was ______by the weather experts.

A

foretold

B

foreteld

C

fortelling

D

foretell

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Correct Answer

foretold

By reading the sentence, we can observe that it is in the past tense. The past form of "foretell" is "foretold".
Hence, the answer is option A.

Q59

CMAT 2022

Choose the correct preposition to complete the sentence:
Roopam hasn’t seen her father_______________ last September.

 

A

on

B

in

C

for

D

since

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Correct Answer

since

A. "on" is used when a specific date or day is mentioned. For example, "on Saturday".
B. "in" is used with a specific period of time. For example, in a year, in a week, etc.
C. "for" is used when a specific time period is mentioned. For example, "for a year"
D. "since" is the correct answer as it is used with the starting of a particular period. For example, since last summer, since yesterday.

Q60

CMAT 2022

Choose the correct order of the sentence to create a meaning out of PQRS set:
This work
P: there emerges a picture spread over three generations
Q: which depicts the rapidity of change
R: devotees form a considerable amount of attention to local detail,
S: and from such a realistic perspective
Codes:

A

PQRS

B

RSPQ

C

SQPR

D

QSPR

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Correct Answer

RSPQ

P and Q form a pair in which Q describes the "picture spread" mentioned in P.
R and S also form a pair such that the "realistic perspective" mentioned in S refers to the "local detail" mentioned in R.
RS precedes PQ since the details mentioned in PQ about the picture spread are elaborating the realistic perspective and attention to detail mentioned in RS.
Hence, the correct order of sentences is RSPQ.

Q61

CMAT 2022

The term butterfly is associated with

A

Kabaddi

B

Boxing

C

Swimming

D

Wrestling

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Correct Answer

Swimming

Swimming

Q62

CMAT 2022

Change in Seasons occur due to
(A) Earth’s rotation
(B) Earth’s Revolution
(C) Inclination of Earth axis
Choose the correct options from the options given below:

A

(A) and (B) only

B

(B) and (C) only

C

(A) and (C) only

D

(A), (B) and (C)

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Correct Answer

(B) and (C) only

(B) and (C) only

Q63

CMAT 2022

Which of the following is true regarding Vehicle Scrapping Policy recently announced by the Centre?

A

State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 25% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 5% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.

B

State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 50% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 10% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.

C

State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 33% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 7% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.

D

State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 40% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 3% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.

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Correct Answer

State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 25% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 5% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.

State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 25% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 5% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.

Q64

CMAT 2022

Article 356 of the Constitution of India provides for

A

Reservation of the jobs for backward classes

B

Protection of religious monument

C

Imposition of President’s rule in a State

D

Right to Education

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Correct Answer

Imposition of President’s rule in a State

Imposition of President’s rule in a State

Q65

CMAT 2022

Prof. Amartya Sen was honoured with
(A) UNESCO PEACE Prize
(B) BHARAT RATNA
(C) NOBEL PRIZE
Choose the correct options from the options given below:

A

(A) and (B) only

B

(B) and (C) only

C

(A) and (C) only

D

(A), (B) and (C)

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Correct Answer

(B) and (C) only

(B) and (C) only

Q66

CMAT 2022

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Indian Constitution uses the word ‘minority’ to mean ‘any sections of citizens’ having a distinct language, script or culture.
Statement II : This may be a whole community living within a majority community.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

A

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

C

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Correct Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q67

CMAT 2022

Who among the following was a French journalist and novelist known for his series of 20 novels collectively known as Les Rougon-Macquart?

A

Jean Paul Sartre

B

Albert Camus

C

Jean Baudrillard

D

Emile Zola

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Marking Scheme
Correct Answer

Emile Zola

Emile Zola

Q68

CMAT 2022

The total number of Judges of International Court of Justice is

A

10

B

12

C

15

D

18

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Marking Scheme
Correct Answer

15

15

Q69

CMAT 2022

Match List I with List II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

(A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

B

(A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

C

(A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

D

(A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

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Correct Answer

(A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

(A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

Q70

CMAT 2022

Which form of Indian dance shows influence of Persian culture?

A

Bhangra

B

Kathak

C

Rangma

D

Chhau

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Marking Scheme
Correct Answer

Kathak

Kathak

Q71

CMAT 2022

Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following:-
(A) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(B) Nehru Report
(C) Non-Cooperation Movement
(D) Quit India Movement

A

(C), (D), (A), (B)

B

(C), (B), (A), (D)

C

(B), (C), (D), (A)

D

(B), (C), (A), (D)

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Correct Answer

(C), (B), (A), (D)

(C), (B), (A), (D)

Q72

CMAT 2022

In banking sector GNPA refers to?

A

Gross Non-performing Advances

B

Gross National Performing Assets

C

Gross National Productive Assets

D

Gratuitous Non-performing Advances

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Correct Answer

Gross Non-performing Advances

Gross Non-performing Advances

Q73

CMAT 2022

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Our lungs have two parts - the left and right lungs.
Statement II : structurally two parts of the lungs are different from each other.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

A

A Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B

B Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C

C Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

D

D Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Correct Answer

A Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

A Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Q74

CMAT 2022

The first country to be labelled as ‘banana Republic’ was

A

A Bermuda

B

B Honduras

C

C El Salvador

D

D Haiti

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Correct Answer

B Honduras

B Honduras

Q75

CMAT 2022

Match List I with List II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

(A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

B

(A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

C

(A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

D

(A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

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Correct Answer

(A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

(A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

Q76

CMAT 2022

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Food is cooked in pressure cooker quickly because it retains heat for a longer period.
Statement II : Food is cooked in pressure cooker quickly because boiling point of water increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

A

Both Statement I and Statement II are true, Option ID :-2157,

B

Both Statement I and Statement II are false, Option ID:- 2158,

C

Statement I is true but Statement II is false, Option ID:- 2159,

D

Statement I is false but Statement II is true, Option ID:- 2160,

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Correct Answer

Statement I is false but Statement II is true, Option ID:- 2160,

Statement I is false but Statement II is true, Option ID:- 2160,

Q77

CMAT 2022

On what does the dollar-rupee exchange rate in India depend ?

A

A Demand-supply equilibrium

B

B Monetary Policy of RBI

C

C Government control

D

D The stock market fluctuations

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Correct Answer

A Demand-supply equilibrium

A Demand-supply equilibrium

Q78

CMAT 2022

Match List I with List II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

(A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

B

(A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

C

(A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

D

(A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

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Marking Scheme
Correct Answer

(A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

(A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

Q79

CMAT 2022

Who among the following rulers belongs to Slave Dynasty?

A

A Shershah Suri

B

B Muhammed Ghori

C

C Shams-ud-din Iltutmish

D

D Humayun

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C Shams-ud-din Iltutmish

C Shams-ud-din Iltutmish

Q80

CMAT 2022

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Bodo is one of the scheduled languages of India.
Statement II : Nepali is one of the scheduled languages of India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

A

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

D

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Correct Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Q81

CMAT 2022

Shishu', 'Kishore' and 'Tarun' are the three products created by __________ to signify the stage of growth/development and funding needs of the beneficiary micro unit/entrepreneur and also provide a reference point for the next phase of graduation/growth.

A

A MUDRA Yojana

B

B Jan Dhan Yojana

C

C Ayushman Bharat Yojana

D

D None of the above

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Correct Answer

A MUDRA Yojana

A MUDRA Yojana

Q82

CMAT 2022

Match List I with List II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

A (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

B

B (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

C

C (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

D

D (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

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D (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

D (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

Q83

CMAT 2022

Please select the most appropriate reason for the government’s increasing role in business globally

A

A Costs of production have continued to increase

B

B People's attitudes have changed

C

C Products have become very technical

D

D Competition in the marketplace has changed

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Correct Answer

D Competition in the marketplace has changed

D Competition in the marketplace has changed

Q84

CMAT 2022

Having more than one customer segment:

A

A Can never be beneficial as this makes an entrepreneur lose focus

B

B Can never be beneficial as it brings in undesired complexity

C

C Can be beneficial as it helps maintain consistent business throughout the year

D

D Can be beneficial as it helps reduce costs

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C Can be beneficial as it helps maintain consistent business throughout the year

C Can be beneficial as it helps maintain consistent business throughout the year

Q85

CMAT 2022

An entrepreneur can get a lot of quality information about competitors from_________.

A

A Company reports and published accounts

B

B Product information leaflets

C

C Websites

D

D All the above

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D All the above

D All the above

Q86

CMAT 2022

Sequoia capital is a/an:

A

A Angel investor

B

B Venture capital firm

C

C Fintech Start-up

D

D None of the above

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Correct Answer

B Venture capital firm

B Venture capital firm

Q87

CMAT 2022

Founders translate company ideas into business model hypotheses, test assumptions about customers’ needs, and then create a ______________to try out their proposed solution on customers.

A

A Beta version

B

B Brand

C

C Minimum viable product

D

D Service

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Correct Answer

C Minimum viable product

C Minimum viable product

Q88

CMAT 2022

Match List I with List II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

A (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

B

B (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

C

C (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

D

D (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

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C (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

C (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

Q89

CMAT 2022

According to Schumpeter, which of the following is the primary function of a new age entrepreneur

A

A Creativity

B

B Innovation

C

C Invention

D

D Skill

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Correct Answer

B Innovation

B Innovation

Q90

CMAT 2022

Shruti wants to start a small floral shop. As a part of her business plan, he prepared an "entertaining MS PowerPoint Presentation" to garner interest among potential investors and trigger discussion. This format of business plan is known as

A

A Business Talk

B

B Business Plan

C

C Pitch deck

D

D Presentation

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Correct Answer

C Pitch deck

C Pitch deck

Q91

CMAT 2022

ATAL Innovation Mission aims to create and promote culture of:

A

A Innovation & energy conservation

B

B Innovation & Entrepreneurship

C

C Entrepreneurship & energy conservation

D

D Strategy and Entrepreneurship

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B Innovation & Entrepreneurship

B Innovation & Entrepreneurship

Q92

CMAT 2022

Which one of the following factors is not relevant for judging the adequacy of market?

A

A Total Present Domestic Market

B

B Competitors and their market shares

C

C Export Market

D

D Labour Market

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Correct Answer

D Labour Market

D Labour Market

Q93

CMAT 2022

Document that projects the income, expenses, and profits of a business over a multi-year period

A

A Technical Plan

B

B Marketing Plan

C

C Financial Plan

D

D Management Plan

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Correct Answer

C Financial Plan

C Financial Plan

Q94

CMAT 2022

Match List I with List II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

A (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

B

B (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

C

C (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

D

D (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

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A (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

A (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

Q95

CMAT 2022

Please provide the full form for CGTMSE, a scheme meant for Micro and Small Enterprises

A

A Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

B

B Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

C

C Credit Guarantee Fund towards Micro and Small Enterprises

D

D Collateral Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

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Correct Answer

B Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

B Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

Q96

CMAT 2022

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : ‘Diversification’ means adding new lines of business.
Statement II : Differentiation means creating specialized products that gain competitive advantage with a particular segment of the market.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

A

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B

B Both Statement I and Statement II are false

C

C Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Correct Answer

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q97

CMAT 2022

Which of the following terms appropriately refers to the attractive idea that an entrepreneur invests in?

A

A Opportunity

B

B Possibility

C

C Business

D

D Notion

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Correct Answer

A Opportunity

A Opportunity

Q98

CMAT 2022

A professional or manager who takes a new initiative for his/her organisation and establish a new distinct business unit for the same organisation can appropriately be referred as:

A

A Business Leader

B

B Industrialist

C

C Entrepreneur

D

D Intrapreneur

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D Intrapreneur

D Intrapreneur

Q99

CMAT 2022

The five phases of the entrepreneurial process are:

A

A Opportunity evaluation, planning, idea generation, growth, company formation/launch

B

B Idea generation, growth, opportunity evaluation, planning, company formation/launch

C

C Idea generation, growth, company formation/launch, opportunity evaluation,planning

D

D Idea generation, opportunity evaluation, planning, company formation/launch, growth

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Correct Answer

D Idea generation, opportunity evaluation, planning, company formation/launch, growth

D Idea generation, opportunity evaluation, planning, company formation/launch, growth

Q100

CMAT 2022

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Ideas should not be examined for their reallife use and application.
Statement II : Business opportunity can be described as an economic idea that can be implemented to create business enterprises and earn profits.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

A

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B

B Both Statement I and Statement II are false

C

C Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Correct Answer

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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